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Use the Alphabetical Listing Guide below to search our expanding Safety FAQ section:

A-F

Air Monitors

Confined Space
Confined Space Tripod and Winch Systems

Emergency Eye / Face Wash / Shower Requirements
Ergonomics

Fall Protection
Fire Extinguisher
Flammable Liquid

G-L

Gas Cylinders

Hard Hats
Hearing Conservation
Hexavalent Chromium

Ladders
Lockout / Tagout

M-R

Matting
Mercury

Oily Waste Cans
Overhead Crane Operation

Proper Lifting
Proposition 65

Radon
Respirators

S-Z

Safety Glasses
Secondary Containment
Spill Control

Temperature Measurement

UN-Marked Containers


 

Ergonomic FAQs

Q. How does OSHA cite employers for ergonomic-related issues when there is no “ergonomics” standard?

A. Employers with ergonomic issues could be cited under OSHA’s General Duty Clause. The General Duty Clause, Section 5(a)(1) of the Occupational Safety and Health Act (Public Law 91-596) states employers must keep their workplaces free from recognized serious hazards that would include ergonomic hazards. It specifically states that an employer, “shall furnish to each of his employees employment and a place of employment which are free from recognized hazards that are causing or are likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees.”

Q. For assistance with identifying potential ergonomic problems, where can an employer turn for help?

A. OSHA’s Consultation Project is a good resource. This service allows an employer to request a visit from a state consultant who can give practical advice on job safety and health problems. These consultants receive the same training as the federal inspection staff, but cannot issue citations, propose penalties or routinely provide information about workplace conditions to the federal inspection staff. In addition to the Consultation Project, OSHA also offers an Ergo Resource through its Web site: http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/ergonomics/index.html

To Index


Proper Lifting FAQs

Q. What are the basic steps for proper lifting?

A.

  1. Stand close to the load with your feet spread apart about shoulder width, with one foot slightly in front of the other for balance.
  2. Squat down, bending at the knees (not the waist). Tuck your chin while keeping your back as vertical as possible.
  3. Get a firm grip on the object before beginning the lift.
  4. Begin lifting slowly with your LEGS by straightening them. Never twist your body during this step.
  5. Once the lift is complete, keep the object as close to the body as possible. As the load's center of gravity moves away from the body, there is a dramatic increase in stress to the lumbar region of the back.

Q. Do back support belts prevent back injuries?

A. The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Heath (NIOSH) has concluded that there is a lack of scientific evidence supporting the use of back belts. Although back belts are being used to help prevent back injuries, there is very little scientific evidence to show their effectiveness. Appropriate back safety training is the most successful way to prevent back injuries.

Q. Does wearing a back support belt increase a person’s weight-lifting potential?

A. The theory is that wearing a back support increases intra-abdominal pressure (IAP), which is supposed to better support the back and abdominal muscles when lifting. However, there is very little scientific information to support this. For more detailed information, see Lab Safety Supply’s EZ Facts® document No. 221.

Q. The PPE standard (Personal Protective Equipment) requires employers to perform hazard task analyses on employees to minimize potential injuries. What is suggested for doing a hazard task analysis for lifting?

A. To evaluate a worker’s lifting habits, consider the following variables: frequency of lifting, duration of such activities, type of lifting and the worker’s state of health, body size, age and general physical fitness.

To Index


Flammable Liquid FAQs

Q. Do flammable liquid storage cabinets have to be vented?

A. NFPA Chapter 4.3.4 states, “The storage cabinet shall not be required by this code to be vented for fire protection purposes, and vent openings shall be sealed with the bungs supplied with the cabinet or with bungs specified by the cabinet manufacturer. However, if the storage cabinet is vented for any reason, the cabinet shall be vented directly to outdoors in such a manner that will not compromise the specified performance of the cabinet and in a manner that is acceptable to the authority having jurisdiction.” While federal OSHA and NFPA rules do not require venting of flammable storage cabinets, individual states and local municipalities could require venting. It is recommended to check with your local fire marshal for guidance on this matter.

Q. What is a safety can?

A. OSHA defines a safety can as “. . . an approved container, of not more than 5 gallons capacity, having a spring-closing lid and spout cover and so designed that it will safely relieve internal pressure when subjected to fire exposure” (1910.106(a)(29)). This definition allows a wide variety of containers to be considered safety cans. However, many local laws and insurance carriers require safety cans to be Factory Mutual (FM) or Underwriters Laboratory (UL) approved. These two organizations are nationally recognized independent testing laboratories to which manufacturers submit products for evaluation of their ability to meet safety requirements under intended use. Products that meet the requirements are given the FM or UL product approval. Both laboratories are also recognized by OSHA.

In addition to the storage of flammable and combustible liquids in safety containers, 29 CFR 1910.106 limits the amount of liquid in a single container. The following chart shows what the allowable amounts of liquid are for each class of liquid.

MAXIMUM ALLOWABLE SIZE OF CONTAINERS AND METAL PORTABLE TANKS
Container Type
Flammable Liquids
Combustible Liquids
Class IA
Class IB
Class IC
Class II
Class III
Glass or approved plastic 1 pt. 1 qt. 1 gal. 1 gal. 1 gal.
Metal (other than DOT drums) 1 gal. 5 gal. 5 gal. 5 gal. 5 gal.
Safety cans 2 gal. 5 gal. 5 gal. 5 gal. 5 gal.
Metal drum (DOT spec.) 60 gal. 60 gal. 60 gal. 60 gal. 60 gal.
Approved metal portable tanks 660 gal. 660 gal. 660 gal. 660 gal. 660 gal.

Q. What’s the difference between a Type I and Type II safety can?

A. The main difference between a Type I and Type II safety can is that a Type I has only one opening. The opening is used for both filling of and dispensing from the container. A Type II can has two openings, one that is used for filling the container and the other for dispensing.

Q. How are flammable liquid safety cabinets designed, constructed and tested to meet NFPA 30?

A. NFPA 30 Chapter 4.3.3 (b) and OSHA 29 CFR 1910.106 (d)(3)(ii)(a) state, “Metal cabinets constructed in the following manner are acceptable. The bottom, top, door, and sides of cabinet shall be at least No. 18 gauge sheet steel and doubled walled with 1-1/2 inches (3.8 cm) air space. Joints shall be riveted, welded or made tight by some equally effective means. The door shall be provided with a three-point latch arrangement and the door sill shall be raised at least 2 inches (5 cm) above the bottom of the cabinet to retain spilled liquid within the cabinet.” NFPA 30 Chapter 4.3.3 (a) also states, “Storage cabinets shall be designed and constructed to limit the internal temperature at the center, 1 inch (2.5 cm) from the top, to not more than 325 degrees F (162.8 degrees C) when subjected to a 10-minute fire test with burners simulating a room fire exposure using the standard time-temperature curve as given in NFPA 251, Standard Methods of Fire Tests of Building Construction and Materials. All joints and seams shall remain tight and the door shall remain securely closed during the fire test.”

Q. Do I need self-closing doors on my safety cabinet?

A. Federal OSHA and NFPA do not mandate self-closing doors. However, each individual state and local municipalities can require self-closing doors. Before purchasing a safety cabinet, it’s best to run this question by your fire marshal.

Q. When am I required to have a safety cabinet?

A. 29 CFR 1910.106 limits the total amount of a liquid kept outside of a cabinet or storage room. The quantity of liquid that may be stored outside of an inside storage room or a cabinet in any one fire area of a building cannot exceed:

  • 25 gallons of Class IA liquids in containers
  • 120 gallons of Class IB, IC, II or III liquids in containers
  • 660 gallons of Class IB, IC, II or III liquids in a single portable tank

The amount of liquid storage and location of cabinets is regulated. 1910.106 (d)(3) states, “Not more than 60 gallons of Class I or Class II liquids, nor more than 120 gallons of Class III liquids may be stored in a storage cabinet.” Also, according to NFPA 304.3.2, not more than three such cabinets may be located in a single fire area.

Q. How can wooden safety cabinets be acceptable?

A. Actually, storing flammable liquids in wooden cabinets that meet the design criteria from OSHA and NFPA is safer then storage in metal cabinets. Wooden flammable cabinets provide an excellent thermal barrier to extreme temperatures during a fire, which helps keep the temperature inside the cabinet to a minimum. Metal, on the other hand, is a heat conductor that can raise the internal temperature inside the cabinet faster than a wooden cabinet.

NFPA 30 Chapter 4.3.3 (c) states, “Wooden cabinets constructed in the following manner are acceptable. The bottom, sides, and top shall be constructed of exterior grade plywood at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) in thickness, which shall not break down or delaminate under fire conditions. All joints shall be rabbetted and shall be fastened in two directions with wood screws. When more than one door is used, there shall be a rabbetted overlap of not less than 1 inch (2.5 cm). Doors shall be equipped with a means of latching, and hinges shall be constructed and mounted in such a manner as to not lose their holding capacity when subjected to fire exposure. A raised sill or pan capable of containing a 2 inches (5 cm) depth of liquid shall be provided at the bottom of the cabinet to retain spilled liquid within the cabinet.”

To index


Gas Cylinder FAQs

Q. Can gas cylinders be stored on welding carts?

A. No. OSHA CFR 29 1926.350 states the storage requirements cannot be met if an oxygen cylinder and an acetylene cylinder are on a welding cart. The cart would lack the required separation and there is not normally a fire barrier available for a cart.

Q. Are there special provisions regarding storing my gas cylinders indoors?

A. Yes. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.253 (b)(2)(ii) states that gas cylinders should be stored in a well-protected, well ventilated, dry location, at least 20 feet from highly combustible materials such as oil or excelsior. Cylinders should be stored in definitely assigned places away from elevators, stairs or gangways. Storage spaces shall be located where cylinders will not be knocked over or damaged by passing or falling objects.

Q. Can I store my cylinders in a locker or cupboard?

A. No. Cylinders need to be kept in areas that are highly ventilated.

To index


Overhead Crane Operation FAQs

Q. Does OSHA require fire extinguishers in the cab of the crane?

A. Yes. OSHA 29 CFR 1910.179 states that all cranes need to be equipped with fire extinguishers. The employer shall ensure that operators are familiar with the operation and care of fire extinguishers provided. Carbon tetrachloride extinguishers shall not be used.

Q. What is the difference between a drag brake and a holding brake?

A. A drag brake is a brake that provides retarding force without external control. A holding brake is a brake that automatically prevents motion when power is off.

Q. Can I make modifications to my crane?

A. Yes. Cranes may be modified and re-rated provided that the modifications and the supporting structure are checked thoroughly for the new rated load by a qualified engineer or the equipment manufacturer.

To index


Emergency Eye/Face Wash/Shower Requirement FAQs

Q. How often do I need to test my emergency eye wash and shower equipment?

A. Plumbed eye wash and shower units shall be activated weekly to verify proper operation. If you have a gravity-feed unit, you need to check the manufacturer’s recommendation for your unit. All emergency eye wash and shower equipment should be inspected annually to ensure compliance with the ANSI Z358.1 installation requirements. This includes flow pattern and flushing fluid flow rates.

Q. Is there a recommended temperature range for the flushing solution from emergency eye wash or shower equipment?

A. The ANSI standard states that emergency eye wash and shower equipment should deliver tepid flushing fluid. Tepid water is referenced in Appendix B6 of the ANSI Z358.1 standard as having a temperature range of 60 to 100 degrees F.

Q. How long do I have to test my emergency eye wash or shower during the weekly test?

A. Plumbed equipment should be tested long enough to ensure proper operation. It does not have to be tested for a full 15 minutes.

Q. What is meant by “personal eye wash?”

A. It is a supplementary eye wash that supports plumbed units, gravity-feed units or both by delivering immediate flushing fluid. However, a personal eye wash unit cannot be a substitute for an emergency eye wash unit because it is not capable of delivering flushing fluid to both eyes simultaneously at the ANSI Z358.1 required rate of 0.4 gallons per minute for 15 consecutive minutes.

Q. Why do eyewash solutions have an expiration date?

A. Eyewash solutions have an expiration date due to the effectiveness of the preservative present in the solution. Preservatives are used to inhibit bacteria growth. Over time, these preservatives lose their effectiveness. The expiration date serves as a warning that the solution may not be able to prevent bacteria growth past that date. Any solution past its expiration date should not be used.

Q. Are there guidelines on where I should locate an emergency eye wash or shower?

A. Yes. Eye wash and shower equipment should be accessible and should not require more than 10 seconds or approximately 55 feet to reach. The unit should be located on the same floor as the hazard and the path should be free of obstructions (doors are considered obstructions in most cases) that may inhibit the immediate use of the equipment.

To index


Fall Protection FAQs

Q. What are the strength requirements for fall-arrest system anchors?

A. Fall-arrest system anchors must be capable of supporting a static load of 5,000 pounds for every worker connected to the anchorage, unless engineering certification exists. Anchorage points that have engineering certification must still maintain a safety factor of at least 2:1 when the system is designed, installed and used under the supervision of a qualified person. Fall-arrest systems must limit a fall to 6 feet, according to ANSI A10.14-1991, OSHA 1926.502.

Q. What are the components of a PFAS (Personal Fall-Arrest System)?

A. The three main components of a personal fall-arrest system are:

  1. Anchorage devices: D-bolt anchor, cable anchors and cross arm strap.
  2. Body wear: full-body harness, body belt (for use in general industry only, these are not acceptable as part of a PFAS in the Construction Standard (OSHA 1926-502)).
  3. Connecting devices: lanyards, self-retracting lanyards, fall limiters and tie-back lanyards.

Q. When wearing a full body harness, the fall-arrest forces should be limited to what?

A. 1800 pounds, per ANSI Z359.1-1992.

Q. A shock-absorbing lanyard will limit fall-arrest forces to what?

A. 900 pounds or less, per ANSI Z359.1-1992.

Q. What is the service life for fall protection?

A.  General guidelines from OSHA, ANSI and most manufacturers state fall protection equipment does not have a specified shelf life or life-expectancy expiration. However, routine inspections should be made to the equipment. If the equipment passes inspection, it is acceptable for use except for Miller Fall Protection. They state their fall protection equipment has a five-year service life from the date of first use.

Q. LSS does not offer horizontal fall-arrest systems—why?

A. Horizontal lifeline systems must be installed by a qualified technician. While our suppliers do offer these types of systems, each system is manufactured and installed based on the specific requirements of the area and task. The manufacturers of these lifeline systems can suggest the best possible solution for your application and can suggest a qualified technician to install the system based on your individual task needs.

  • Bacou-Dalloz Fall Protection 1-800-873-5242
  • DBI/SALA 1-800-328-6146

Q. Define Type I vs. Type II fall protection.

A. Type I fall protection can be used for fall protection as well as positioning. Type II fall protection should be used for positioning only.

Q. Please list the maximum working weight for full-body harnesses for OSHA and ANSI.

A. The maximum working weight on a full-body harness for OSHA is 400 pounds for man and tools; for ANSI it is limited to 310 pounds for man and tools.

To Index


Hard Hat FAQs

Q. What is the service life of a hard hat?

A. According to the 1986 and 1997 ANSI standards, all hard hat components should be inspected daily for signs of dents, cracks, penetration and any damage due to impact, rough treatment or wear. Any hard hat that fails the visual inspection should be removed from service until the problem is corrected.

In additoin to everyday wear and tear, ultraviolet (UV) radiation can pose a problem for hats constructed of plastic materials. Damage caused by UV radiation is easy to spot: the hat will lose its glossy finish and eventually take on a chalky appearance. Further degradation could cause the shell to actually start flaking away. Once the effects of UV radiation are detected, the hard hat shell should be immediately replaced.

As long as the hard hat passes inspection, it can remain in service. When inspecting a hard hat, make sure to check both the inside and outside for possible damage. Pay closer attention to those that have stickers on them, for they tend to hide cracks.

Q. How often do I have to replace my hard hat?

A. As a general guideline, employers replace caps every five years, regardless of outward appearance. Most hard hats have manufacture date codes molded on the underside brim of the cap so you can easily determine the age of the cap. If the user environment is known to include higher exposure to temperature extremes, sunlight or chemicals, hard hats should be replaced routinely after two years of use.

Regardless of length of use, if a hard hat has any visible damage or defects, the hard hat should be replaced immediately. Also, if a hard hat has been struck by a forcible blow of any magnitude, the shell and suspension should be replaced immediately, even if no damage is visible. Any impact can substantially reduce the protection offered.

Q. Can I put stickers or decals on my hard hat?

A. Considering the type of adhesive used in typical pressure-sensitive stickers, there is very little potential for chemical interaction between the adhesive and the helmet shell. The use of these types of stickers would not be expected to negatively affect the performance of the helmet under normal conditions.

Two general rules of thumb should be followed if stickers and decals are used. First, adhesive stickers should be placed at least 3/4 inch away from the edge of the helmet. This prevents the possibility of the sticker acting as a conductor between the outside and inside of the shell if it were to wrap around the brim. Second, the areas of the helmet covered by stickers/decals should be kept to a practical minimum to permit regular inspection of the helmet shell for damage.

Q. Can I wear my hard hat backward?

A. OSHA published a standard interpretation and compliance letter dated July 22, 1992 that states: “Because ANSI only tests and certifies hard hats to be worn with the bill foreword, hard hats worn with the bill to the rear would not be considered reliable protection and would not meet the requirement of 29 CFR 1926.100 (a) and (b) unless the hard hat manufacturer certifies that this practice meets the ANSI requirements.” To comply with this requirement, written verification and instructions from the hard hat manufacturer on whether your hard hat model has been tested and found to be compliant when worn backward should be obtained.

Q. Can I carry or wear anything inside of my hard hat?

A. Per the ANSI Z89.1 standard, a clearance must be maintained between the hard hat shell and the wearer’s head for the protection system to work properly. Any object in this space may limit this clearance and the overall performance of the hard hat. Objects placed in this space that contain metal can also diminish the dielectric protection provided by the hat. There are some products designed specifically to work in conjunction with hard hats. Be sure to follow the manufacturer’s recommendations for the use of these products.

To Index


Lockout/Tagout FAQs

Q. What is the difference between lockout and tagout?

A. Lockout is the placement of an energy isolation device on a piece of equipment to render it inoperable. A lockout uses a lock to hold an energy isolating device in a safe position and prevents the energization of the machine or equipment. Tagout is when a tag is placed on a piece of equipment to indicate that the equipment being controlled may not be operated until the tagout device is removed.

Q. When can tagouts be used?

A. A tagout device should only be used if the employer can demonstrate that the utilization of a tagout system will provide full employee protection.

Q. What are the procedures for removing a lockout/tagout device?

A. Before lockout or tagout devices are removed, the authorized employee shall ensure that nonessential items are removed from the machine and that machine components are operationally intact. The area should be checked to ensure all employees are safely positioned or removed. The lockout/tagout device must be removed by the person who applied the device. The equipment should be completely cycled to ensure it is operating properly.

Q. Do machines with one plug need to be locked out?

A. The standard does not apply to situations where the cord-and-plug machine is under the exclusive control of the employee

Q. What is the difference between an authorized employee and an affected employee?

A. An authorized employee is a person who locks out or tags out machines or equipment in order to perform service or maintenance on the machine or equipment. An affected employee is an employee whose job requires him or her to operate or use a machine or piece of equipment on which service or maintenance is being performed or in an area where it is being performed.

To Index


Spill Control FAQs

Q. What is the most accurate way to assess sorbent capacity?

A. Sorbent capacity may be listed by the amount of weight the sorbent will absorb in relation to itself, e.g. “absorbs 12 times its weight,” or by its liquid capacity, e.g. “absorbs up to 12 gallons.” If a boom weighs one pound and absorbs 12 times its weight, it will absorb 12 pounds of fluid. However, since all liquids don’t weigh the same per gallon, the weight capacity of the sorbent varies from liquid to liquid. A more accurate way to assess sorbent capacity is by how many gallons it will absorb. This amount will remain fairly static, regardless of the fluid weight.

Q. What tests are used for calculating sorbent performance?

A. The standard method of sorbent performance testing is described in detail in the American Society for Testing Materials (ASTM) standard F716-82 “Standard Methods of Testing Sorbent Performance of Adsorbents.” Oil and water adsorption strength, buoyancy, absorbency and reusability are some of the tests included in this standard.

Q. What is the difference between absorption and adsorption?

A. Absorption is the assimilation of one material into another. During absorption, liquid is taken up into the physical structure or fibers of the sorbent.

Adsorption is the adhesion of substances to a solid surface. Adsorption occurs when liquid clings to the surfaces of the sorbent fibers.

Q. What is the difference between hydrophilic and hydrophobic sorbents?

A. Hydro = water, philic = loving. Sorbents that are hydrophilic absorb water and water-based substances.

Hydro = water, phobic = fearing. Sorbents that are hydrophobic repel water and water-based substances.

To Index


Ladder FAQs

Q. How do I maintain and inspect my ladder?

A. Even though there are various ladder types and materials, there are common guidelines to consider when maintaining and inspecting ladders. Inspect a ladder thoroughly before each use. Rungs, steps and rails should be intact and sturdy. Fasteners and braces should be in place and secure. Any moving parts should be in good working order. Keep the rungs clean, dry and free of any oil or grease. If an inspection reveals damage, the ladder should be repaired to its original condition. If repair is not practical or feasible, the ladder should be taken out of service. Ladders should not be painted because paint may disguise or cover cracks and damage. Ladders should be stored in a safe, dry location.

Q. What size of ladder do I need?

A. Once you have determined the proper type of ladder and its material, another critical factor in the selection process is the length. For stepladders, it is suggested that the size be approximately 3 or 4 feet shorter than the height you want to reach. For extension ladders, a 75-degree angle is suggested so that the distance from the structure to the ladder’s feet is one-fourth the distance from the ground to where the ladder contacts the structure. Also, a 3-foot overhang is generally suggested.

Q. Can I work off the top step of my stepladder?

A. Workers frequently ask if they can work/stand on the top step of their stepladder. The answer is no. “Rules for Ladder Use” in the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standard A14.2-2000 (metal) # 8.3.2 and standard A14.5-2000 (fiberglass) #9.3 both state, “The user shall not step or stand higher than the step or rung indicated on the label marking the highest standing level. The user shall not step or stand on: a ladder top cap and the top step of a step or trestle ladder, or the bucket or pail shelf of a self-supporting ladder.”

To Index


Fire Extinguisher FAQs

Q. What is the proper height to mount a fire extinguisher, as per NFPA 10 guidelines?

A. Extinguishers with a gross weight not exceeding 40 pounds should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than 5 feet above the floor.

Extinguishers with a gross weight greater than 40 pounds, except wheeled types, should be installed so that the top of the extinguisher is not more than 3 feet above the floor.

In no case can the clearance between the bottom of the extinguisher and the floor be less than 4 inches.

Q. How do you use a portable fire extinguisher and what is the well-known training acronym for proper extinguisher use?

A. Use a portable fire extinguisher by following the P.A.S.S. procedure:

  1. Pull the handle pin on the top of the extinguisher.
  2. Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire and stand approximately 8 to 10 feet from the fire.
  3. Squeeze the extinguisher handle to discharge the extinguishing agent. (Release the handle and the discharge will stop.)
  4. Sweep the nozzle/extinguisher side to side at the base of the fire. After the fire is out, watch/inspect the fire location carefully to ensure it does not re-ignite.

Q. What are the four classes of fires and their respective hazard materials?

A. Class A: Ordinary combustibles. These can include wood, paper, fabrics, rubber and many plastics.
Class B: Flammable liquids and gases. These can include gasoline, paint, oils, grease, tar, lacquer and other solvents.
Class C: Energized electrical equipment. This can include wiring, motors, generators, panels, switches and appliances.
Class D: Combustible metals and combustible metal alloys.

Q. What does the UL rating for a fire extinguisher indicate?

A. Class A and B fire extinguishers have a numerical rating based on tests conducted by UL (Underwriter’s Laboratories). The UL rating is broken down into Class A and Class B:C ratings. These numerical ratings allow you to compare the relative extinguishing effectiveness of various fire extinguishers.

For example, an extinguisher that is rated 4A:20B:C indicates the following:

  • The A rating is a water equivalency rating. Each A is equivalent to 1-1/4 gallons of water. 4A=5 gal. of water.
  • The B:C rating is equivalent to the area (square footage) that, related to the degree of training and experience of the operator, the extinguisher can cover. 20 B:C=20 square feet of coverage.
  • C indicates it is suitable for use on electrically energized equipment.

When analyzing these ratings, note that there is not a numerical rating for Class C or Class D fires. Class C fires are essentially either a Class A or Class B fire involving energized electrical equipment where the fire extinguishing material must be nonconductive. The fire extinguisher for a Class C fire should be based on the amount of the Class A or Class B component. For extinguisher use on a Class D fire, the relative effectiveness is detailed on the extinguisher nameplate.

Q. How do I determine what size fire extinguisher I need?

A. Portable extinguishers are rated for the size of fire they can handle. This rating appears on the label. An example of such a rating could be, 2A:10B:C. The larger the number(s), the larger the fire the extinguisher can put out. One thing to keep in mind is that higher rated extinguisher models are often heavier—that becomes an important issue when it comes down to properly holding and operating an extinguisher. An extinguisher must be large enough to put out the fire. Most portable extinguishers discharge completely in as few as 8 to 10 seconds. Fire extinguishers are tested by independent laboratories and labeled for the type and size of fire they can extinguish. The applied extinguisher reference/labels can be used as a guide to determining the correct extinguisher for a specific application.

Selection of an extinguisher for a given application depends on the following items:

  • The nature of the combustible or flammables that present.
  • The potential severity, including the size, intensity and speed of travel of potential fire.
  • Effectiveness of the fire extinguisher on a given fire source.
  • Ease of use of a specific model extinguisher.
  • Personnel trained in reacting and operating an extinguisher.
  • The suitability of the extinguisher for a given environment, which can include existing ambient temperature conditions and other surrounding potential atmospheric conditions such as wind, draft and/or presence of vapors or fumes.
  • Anticipating adverse chemical reactions between the extinguishing agent and the resulting burning material(s).
  • The health and operational safety issues of extinguisher operators with type of extinguishing agent(s).
  • The maintenance requirements for certain model extinguishers.

The information below provides additional rating information to assist in determining the appropriate extinguisher for specific applications.

Class A Extinguishers will put out fires in ordinary combustibles, such as wood and paper. The numerical rating for this class of fire extinguisher refers to the amount of water the fire extinguisher holds and the amount of fire it will extinguish.

Class B Extinguishers should be used on fires involving flammable liquids, such as grease, gasoline, oil, etc. The numerical rating for this class of fire extinguisher states the approximate number of square feet of a flammable liquid fire that an average person can expect to extinguish.

Class C Extinguishers are suitable for use on electrically energized fires. This class of fire extinguishers does not have a numerical rating. The presence of the letter “C” indicates that the extinguishing agent is nonconductive.

Class D Extinguishers are designed for use on flammable metals and are often specific for the type of metal in question. There is no picture designator for Class D extinguishers. These extinguishers generally have no rating and are not given a multi-purpose rating for use on other types of fires.

 

To Index


Safety Eyewear FAQs


Q. What are the lenses of safety glasses made of?

A. Most nonprescription (plano) safety glasses have polycarbonate lenses. Prescription safety glasses may have CR-39® plastic, glass or polycarbonate lenses.

Q. What is the difference between CR-39® and polycarbonate lenses?

A. CR-39 is a PPG Industries registered trade name for diallyl diglycol carbonate (DADC) polymer, introduced in 1941. The "CR" stands for Columbia Resin and CR-39 was the 39th batch or formula made by Columbia Laboratories in Ohio. This polymer is a polycarbonate, but its starting materials are different from the resins used in safety glasses with polycarbonate lenses. The CR-39 is a thermoset plastic, meaning it cannot be molded or bent when heated.

The polycarbonate polymers used in most safety glasses are thermoplastic, which means the lenses are formed by melting polycarbonate pellets and injecting them into a mold.

Q. Why do most plano glasses have polycarbonate lenses?

A. Polycarbonate lenses are impact-resistant, lighter in weight and have built-in ultraviolet protective properties. Similar to the way that sunscreen keeps the sun's rays from damaging the body; UV protection shields the eyes from the same detrimental light rays.

Q. Will plano safety eyewear weaken or ruin my eyesight?

A. No, all plano eyewear compliant with American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standards is made of optical-quality material. Looking through them for many hours a day will not weaken your vision.

It is not unusual for some individuals to experience difficulty in adjusting to new safety eyewear. The problem may be the result of the individual requiring prescription rather than plano safety eyewear. If the visual discomfort continues, an eyecare professional should be consulted.

Another option is simply to change the style of the eyewear selected.

Q. I wear prescription lenses, what are my options?

Workers who wear prescription lenses must wear a pair of safety glasses that incorporate the prescription in its design, or wear safety glasses that can be worn over prescription lenses without disturbing the proper position of either.   

The uvex® astro OTG® 3001 is an example of safety glasses that can be worn over prescription lenses. Optional prescription inserts are available from LSS for a variety of safety glasses, including North Lightning™, North N-Vison™ and uvex® XC™Safety reading glasses (with diopters incorporated into the lens design) are also available.  

Safety glasses with prescription lenses are available through LSS at the following link:  www.labsafety.com/refinfo/rxeyewear.htm 

Q. Can photochromic lenses be worn in an industrial environment?

A. Photochromic lenses darken when exposed to sunlight and lighten when used indoors. The use of these lenses in the workplace has been controversial. Photochromic lenses should be used with care in operations requiring critical acuity or quick reaction to visual stimuli, since the change in tint is not immediate. Special care should be taken for those work operations where a worker passes from outdoors to indoors in the course of the job—e.g., a forklift operator. Although photochromic lenses absorb ultraviolet light, they should not be used as a substitute for the proper protector in hazardous optical radiation environments.

Q. How should I maintain my protective eyewear?

A. Safety eyewear must be maintained properly in order to provide you with maximum protection. Protective eyewear should be cleaned according to the manufacturer's instructions. If no instructions are available, clean or soak the eyewear with mild soap and warm water (120°F). Rinse thoroughly and allow to air dry.

Q. ANSI Z87.1 was updated in 2003. Has the revised standard been incorporated into the OSHA regulations?

A. Currently, ANSI Z87.1-1989 is incorporated by reference in the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations [29 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 1910.133]. As such, it carries the force of the law. If OSHA chooses to adopt ANSI Z87.1-2003, the change will be noted in the Federal Register. LSS will continually monitor the Federal Register for an announcement of such changes.

To Index


Respirator FAQs

Q. What is the difference between an assigned protection factor (APF) and a fit factor?

A. According to ANSI Z88.2-1992, an APF is the expected workplace level of respiratory protection that would be provided by a properly functioning respirator or a class of respirators to properly fitted and trained users. A fit factor is a quantitative measure of the fit of a particular respirator on an individual.

Assigned Protection Factors
Type of respirator
Respiratory inlet covering
Half mask1)
Full facepiece
Air purifying
10
100

Atmosphere supplying

SCBA (demand)2)
Airline (demand)

 

10
10

100
100
Type of respirator
Respiratory inlet covering
Half mask
Full face
Helmet/Hood
Loose-fitting facepiece
Powered air purifying
50
10003)
10003)
25

Atmosphere supplying airline

pressure demand
continuous flow



50
50



1000
1000



-
1000



-
25

Self-contained breathing apparatus

Pressure demand open/closed circuit


-

4)
 

-

-

1) Includes 1/4 mask, disposable half masks, and half masks with elastomeric facepieces.
2) Demand SCBA shall not be used for emergency situations such as fire fighting.
3) Protection factors listed are for high-efficiency filters and sorbents (cartridges and canisters). With dust filters, an assigned protection factor of 100 is to be used due to the limitations of the filter.
4) Although positive-pressure respirators are currently regarded as providing the highest level of respiratory protection, a limited number of recent simulated workplace studies concluded that all users may not achieve protection factors of 10,000. Based on this limited data, a definitive assigned protection factor could not be listed for positive-pressure SCBAs. For emergency planning purposes where hazardous concentrations can be estimated, an assigned protection factor of no higher than 10,000 should be used.

NOTE - Assigned protection factors are not applicable for escape respirators. For combination respirators, e.g., airline respirators equipped with an air-purifying filter, the mode of operation in use will dictate the assigned protection factor to be applied.

 

Q. What is the difference between a qualitative fit test and a quantitative fit test?

A. A qualitative fit test is a pass/fail test that relies on the subject’s sensory response to detect the challenge agent. The four OSHA-accepted challenge agents are irritant smoke, saccharin, isoamyl acetate (banana oil) and bitrex. Qualitative tests are typically very economical. However, they will only verify a 10X fit factor.

A quantitative fit test uses an instrument (one commonly used device is called a Portacount) to measure the challenge agent inside and outside the respirator. It will verify fit factors above 10X but it is more expensive to conduct this type of testing due to the instrumentation and components needed.

Q. What size respirator should I order: small, medium or large?

A. Even though approximately 80 percent of people wear a medium-sized respirator, the only way to determine the correct size mask is to perform a fit test. When performing a fit test, start with a medium mask. If during the fit test it is determined that the mask does not fit properly, proceed testing with the next possible appropriate size for the person being tested.

Q. What type of respirator should I wear to reduce exposure to mold?

A. Currently, there are no published exposure limits for mold. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the New York City Department of Health (NYCDOH) have published recommendations on respirator selection for mold remediation activities based upon the size of the contaminated area.

  • For areas less than 10 sq. ft., a filtering facepiece respirator (N95 disposable respirators) or half masks with replaceable particulate filters may be used in conjunction with nonvented goggles.
  • For areas between 10 and 100 sq. ft., either a half mask with nonvented face goggles or a full facepiece respirator with 100-level particulate filters should be used.
  • For areas greater than 100 sq. ft., a full facepiece respirator with 100-level particle filters should be used. The full facepiece may also be used as part of a powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR) system.

Q. What is the difference between a respirator approved by the National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) and a surgical mask?

A. NIOSH-approved respirators are designed to help reduce the wearer’s exposure to airborne contaminants. The primary purpose of a surgical mask is to help prevent biological particles from being expelled by the wearer into the environment. Surgical masks are also designed to be fluid-resistant to splash and splatter of blood and other infectious materials and not for reducing the wearer’s exposure to ambient airborne contaminants. Surgical masks are not necessarily designed to seal tightly to the face, so the potential for air leakage around the edges exists. Other types of masks that appear similar to respirators may not be designed to protect the wearer from airborne hazards. Therefore, they should not be considered an equivalent substitute for a NIOSH-approved respirator. There are some approved respirators designed to have the characteristics of both a NIOSH-approved respirator and a surgical mask, such as LSS product No. 41453.

Q. Can I use another brand of cartridges and parts with my current respirator?

A. No, using another series or brand of components will void the NIOSH/MSHA approval because cartridges and masks are approved as a unit.

Q. What does the acronym “HEPA” stand for?

A. HEPA is defined as High Efficiency Particulate Absolute. A HEPA-rated filter is at least 99.97 percent efficient when tested with 0.3-micron aerosol.

Q. Why isn’t there a HEPA filter for air-purifying respirators (APRs)?

A. In 1998, NIOSH’s new set of regulations in 42 Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 84—also referred to as “Part 84”—for testing and certifying nonpowered, air-purifying, particulate respirators went into effect. Certification requirements for all other classes of respirators were transferred to Part 84 without change. These other classes of respirators include: chemical cartridges, self-contained breathing apparatus [SCBA], airlines, gas masks without a particulate filter, powered air-purifying respirators [PAPRs] equipped with HEPA filters, etc.

Q. What do I use if I need a HEPA for my APR?

A. A P100 filter would be used in the same applications a HEPA is used. Filters with a P100 designation are oilproof and at least 99.97 percent efficient when tested with 0.3-micron Dioctyl Phthalate (DOP) aerosol.

Q. How do I go about selecting the proper cartridge for my application?

A. Cartridges do have limitations. A chemical cartridge contains activated charcoal. The charcoal is activated based upon the contaminant it is designed to absorb. To determine the proper cartridge for air-purifying respirators, either contact a safety professional or consult the Material Safety Data Sheet of the substance that needs to be filtered. All cartridges are assigned a color designating the type of contaminant they will filter:

Cartridge Color: Contaminant
Olive: Multicontaminant
White: Acid gas
Black: Organic vapors
Green: Ammonia gas
Yellow: Acid gas and organic vapors
Magenta: Any particulates - P100

The medium used in the cartridge is usually activated carbon. The adsorption capacity of the cartridge is limited. For assistance in choosing the appropriate cartridge, call LSS Technical Support at 1-800-356-2501.

Q. How often do I need to change my chemical cartridges and how do I know when to change my cartridges?

A. As of April 8, 1998, OSHA requires that end users establish a change schedule in absence of an end of service life indicator (ESLI) on the cartridge or canister. For more details, please see EZ Facts® document No. 196 or visit OSHA’s Web site at: www.osha.gov/SLTC/etools/respiratory/change_schedule.html

For additional information, see EZ Facts® document No. 141: www.LSS.com/refinfo/ezfacts/ezf141.htm

To Index


Confined Space FAQs

Q. What is a confined space?

A. A confined space is a space that meets all three of the following criteria:

  1. Is large enough and so configured that an employee can bodily enter and perform assigned work.
  2. Has limited or restricted means of entry or exit (for example, tanks, vessels, silos, storage bins, hoppers, vaults and pits).
  3. Is not designed for continuous employee occupancy.

Q. What is the difference between a nonpermit and permit-required confined space?

A. A nonpermit confined space does not contain or, with respect to atmospheric hazards, have the potential to contain any hazard capable of causing death or serious physical harm.

A permit-required confined space (permit space) has one or more of the following characteristics:

  1. Contains or has the potential to contain a hazardous atmosphere.
  2. Contains a material that has the potential for engulfing an entrant.
  3. Has an internal configuration such that an entrant could be trapped or asphyxiated by inwardly converging walls or by a floor that slopes downward and tapers to a smaller cross-section.
  4. Contains any other recognized serious safety or health hazard.

Q. What is the difference between a two-way and a three-way winch?

A. The two-way winch is used for hoisting people and/or equipment into or out of the confined space. A three-way winch, which has a breaking mechanism, is used for fall protection. The only time a three-way winch should be used to hoist someone is if a fall has occurred and a rescue needs to be performed. Otherwise, the two-way winch should be used so the teeth on the three-way winch do not become worn and nonfunctional should a rescue need to be performed.

Q. If I use my three-way winch for an emergency hoisting event, do I need to remove it from service and have it inspected?

A. After an impact, the winch must be removed from service and inspected. Servicing may be required.

Q. What is an immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH) atmosphere?

A. It is an atmospheric concentration of any toxic, corrosive or asphyxiant substance that poses an immediate threat to life or would cause irreversible or delayed adverse health effects or that would interfere with an individual’s ability to escape unaided from a permit space.

Q. Can an ambient air pump be used for confined space respiratory protection?

A. Confined spaces may be immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH). An IDLH environment requires an SCBA or an airline respirator with an escape bottle. Escape bottles are used in a high-pressure, pressure-demand format. An AABA (ambient air breathing apparatus) is a low-pressure, constant-flow product. Therefore, the high-pressure escape bottle and the low-pressure AABA will not work together.

Q. What is LEL?

A. LEL is the acronym for lower explosive (flammable) limit. Prior to entry into a confined space, the level of flammable gases must be below 10% of the LEL so that there isn’t enough gas to support combustion.

Q. What air monitoring needs to be performed prior to entering a confined space?

A. Air monitoring should be performed prior to entry. At a minimum, oxygen and LEL levels need to be monitored. If other toxins are suspected, then those levels also need to be monitored. Air should be monitored in the following order:

  1. Oxygen—Test for oxygen first in order to be sure you get an accurate LEL reading. Most combustible gas meters are oxygen-dependent and will not provide reliable readings in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere. Oxygen levels should be between 19.5 and 23.5%.
  2. LEL—Test flammable gas and vapor levels due to the threat of fire or explosion, which can be immediate and life threatening.
  3. Toxic air contaminants—Test for impurities such as carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen sulfide (H2S) and chlorine (Cl2).

Q. If I monitor prior to entry and my readings are OK, do I need to continue monitoring while I'm in the confined space?

A. Title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations 1910.146 paragraph (c)(5)(ii)(F) requires periodic testing as necessary to ensure the space is maintained within the limits of the acceptable entry conditions. This is critical. OSHA states that all permit space atmospheres are dynamic due to variables such as temperature, pressure, physical characteristics of the material posing the atmospheric hazard, variable efficiency of ventilation equipment and air delivery system, etc.

The employer must determine and document on an individual permit space basis what the frequency of testing is and under what conditions the verification testing is done.

To Index


Radon FAQs

Q. What is radon?

A. Radon is a radioactive gas formed by the natural radioactive decay of uranium in soil, rock and water. It is colorless, tasteless and chemically inert, and found in all 50 of the United States. Once produced, it seeps up through the ground to the air above--while some remains below the surface dissolving in underground flowing water. Radon gas decays into radioactive particles that can become trapped within your lungs when you breathe. As the particles break down further, they release small bursts of energy and this can damage lung tissue and lead to lung cancer.

Not everyone exposed to elevated levels of radon will develop lung cancer. The amount of time between exposure and the onset of the disease may be many years. Breathing radon does not cause any short-term health effects such as shortness of breath, coughing, headaches or fever. Research suggests that swallowing water with high radon levels may pose risks too, although risks are much lower than those from breathing air containing radon. Radon in air is estimated to cause about 21,000 cancer deaths per year in the United States, usually occurring from 5 to 25 years after exposure.

Q. How does radon get inside of buildings or housing?

A Primarily through cracks, holes, construction joints, gaps in suspended floors, service pipes, cavities inside of walls and any porous features existing in the foundation--even the water supply. Once inside, radon becomes trapped and levels can become concentrated.

Q. Is it safe when radon is in water and no longer airborne?

A. No because when it enters though a building's water supply it is still released and poses both inhalation and ingestion risks.

Q. What amount of radon is considered harmful?

A. A national residential radon survey in the U.S. found that the average indoor level is about 1.3 picocuries per liter (pCi/L), while the average outdoor level is about 0.4 pCi/L. The World Health Organization (WHO), National Academy of Sciences, US Department of Health and Human Services and EPA have classified radon as a known carcinogen and is estimated to be the second leading cause of lung cancer in the US according to the EPA, and has established a recommended Action Level for Radon at 4 picocuries per liter (pCi/L). For radon concentrations at or above 4 pCi/L, the EPA recommends that steps be taken to reduce exposure levels to below the action level.

Q. What is a “picocurie” (pCi)?

A. A “picocurie” or pCi, is a measure of the rate of radioactivity decay of radon. One pCi is one trillionth of a Curie, 0.037 disintegrations per second, or 2.22 disintegrations per minute. At EPA’s recommended action level of 4 pCi/L (picocuries per liter), there will be 12,672 radioactive disintegrations in one liter of air during a 24-hour period.

Q. How is radon detected?

A. There are two different testing methods: short-term passive monitoring or long-term passive monitoring. Passive radon monitoring uses testing kits obtainable through local hardware and home improvement stores as well as through online retailers. Kits are available for either short-term (2-90 days) or long-term (90 days or longer) testing before being sent to a laboratory for analysis with a report being mailed back to you.

Q. How do I choose short- or long-term testing?

A. Because radon levels tend to vary from day to day and season to season, short-term results may not be a good representation of a structure’s actual year-round radon level. To obtain a more accurate idea of year-round levels, long-term testing kits should be used for a more realistic radon measurement level. Obviously short-term tests are the quickest way to determine current radon levels.

Q. How is testing actually performed?

A. The EPA has established and printed guidelines which Lab Safety Supply Inc. has included in its EZ Facts Document Number 302.

Q. What is a “working level” (WL)?

A. Some testing devices measure radiation from radon decay products, rather than radiation coming directly from radon. Measurements from these devices are often expressed as “working level” (WL). A level of 0.02 WL is usually equal to about 4pCi/L in a typical home.

Q. What should I do if levels are found to exceed the 4pCi/L limit?

A. Lowering high radon levels requires technical knowledge and special skills. You should use a qualified contractor who can study the radon problem in your home and help you pick the right method. The first step with almost any remediation plan is to seal all the cracks or gaps in a structure’s foundation or concrete floor or slab. There are a variety of techniques that remediation contractors use to solve radon problems. The EPA recommends using a method that prevents the entry of radon into a home.

Q. Can the radon level within a building be predicted?

A. No, it is not possible to make a reliable prediction. Testing is the only known current way to determine levels of radon.

Q. How can a qualified radon professional be located?

A. Check with your local government or state authority (State Radon Contact) for their list of available approved contractors in your area, or one of the two privately-run Radon Proficiency Programs: National Environmental Health Association (NEHA) or National Radon Safety Board (NRSB)

To Index


Mercury FAQs

Q. Where can mercury be found?

A. Mercury is a naturally occurring element refined from cinnabar mined from the Earth's crust. Refined mercury is used to manufacture many products. Mercury can be found in fluorescent bulbs, mercury vapor lamps, metal halide lamps, relays, manometers, gauges, thermometers, thermostats, button cell batteries, dental fillings, mercury switches, old pesticides, fungicides and paints.

Q. What symptoms are associated with mercury exposure?

A. Signs of mercury poisoning include trembling; the loss of feeling or a burning sensation in the arms and legs; hearing, vision or memory loss; kidney problems; slurred speech; irritability; loss of memory; depression; anxiety and—at high doses—death.

Click here to find out what mercury has to do with the phrase "Mad as a hatter."

Q. How should I clean up a mercury spill?

A. For indoor spills, check clothing and footwear for contamination to avoid spreading mercury into other areas. Open all nearby windows and shut off the ventilation system, if applicable. For outdoor spills, ventilation is typically not as crucial, but mercury spilled on loose soil may migrate deep into the soil due to its high density and heavy weight.

For small spills, use sand to contain the mercury or an amalgamate such as Hg Absorb Powder to bind with the mercury and reduce vaporization. For large spills, dike the area far in advance of the spill for later reclamation or disposal. Mercury-approved vacuums are commonly used on large spills. For all spills, isolate the area immediately. Cleanup personnel should wear appropriate PPE clothing, gloves and SCBA-type respirators.

If the mercury spill occurred on carpet, upholstery or curtains, the area of the spill needs to be cut out, removed and disposed of according to the local governing authorities and regulations.

Q. Do I need to wear any personal protective equipment when working with mercury or cleaning it up?

A. Respiratory protection should be worn. If concentrations are known, an air-purifying respirator with mercury cartridges can be worn as long as the concentrations do not exceed the limitations of the air-purifying respirator. If concentrations are unknown, an SCBA should be worn.

Gloves should be worn to protect from absorbing mercury through the skin. Each manufacturer does individual testing on its gloves so it is best to check the chemical compatibility prior to purchase. Two gloves that were tested by the manufacturer are the Sol-Vex Nitrile glove and the PVC Petroflex glove. As with gloves, other clothing, such as aprons, smocks or coveralls, that has been tested and protects against mercury should be worn.

Q. How do I dispose of an item that contains mercury?

A. When an item or a product has reached the end of its useful life or becomes damaged, the mercury should be sent to a mercury recycling center. Mercury must not be disposed of down the sink drain or in the regular trash. Click here to view the Onyxpail for recycling mercury devices.

Q. How can I find out if mercury vapors are present in my work area?

A. Wear a clip-on Mercury Vapor Badge (also known as a personal air monitor). The badge will not only detect the presence of mercury vapor, but can also be sent to a lab for analysis—giving you an exact reading of the concentration level in your work area. Or you can use a mercury indicator powder to determine if mercury is still present in an area where a spill occurred.

To Index


Temperature Measurement FAQs

Q. What types of thermometers are there?

A. The most common thermometers are liquid filled, such as mercury, spirit filled, or nontoxic biodegradable liquid, and are produced in a variety of accuracy levels depending on the need. Also, there are partial immersion and total immersion thermometers, dial thermometers, thermocouple thermometers and, the latest in technology, infrared (IR) thermometers.

Q. What is the most accurate thermometer?

A. Total immersion thermometers offer the best accuracy because most of the length is used in the substance and no other factors affect the readings.

Q. What is the difference between total and partial immersion thermometers?

A. Total immersion thermometers are designed to be inserted into the entire measurable portion of the material or solution where it is not affected by external forces. These may require more space to obtain readings, however they are generally more accurate. Partial immersion thermometers are designed for areas that have limited space, including small samples, laboratory ovens and shallow baths. Since only a small portion of the thermometer is immersed and the remainder of it is subject to outside temperature factors, the scales are graduated to indicate temperatures at specific depths.

Q. What are the formulas for converting temperature scales?

A. Degrees Celsius = (degrees Fahrenheit - 32)* 5/9 Degrees
Celsius = degrees Kelvin - 273.15 Degrees
Fahrenheit = 1.8 (degrees Celsius) + 32 Degrees
Fahrenheit = degrees Rankine - 459.67 Degrees
Kelvin = degrees Celsius + 273.15 Degrees
Rankine = degrees Fahrenheit + 459.67 Degrees
Fahrenheit to Kelvin, convert degrees F to degrees C, then degrees C + 273.15

Q. What are the advantages of a spirit-filled or biodegradable-liquid thermometer when compared to a conventional mercury-filled thermometer?

A. The main advantage is avoiding the hazards associated with mercury. Spirit-filled thermometers are nonhazardous and can be easily disposed of if broken. Since mercury is considered a hazard, if a mercury thermometer is broken, it must be cleaned up and disposed of in accordance with local, state, and federal guidelines.

Q. What is the “spirit” fluid?

A. A mixture of biodegradable technical white oil, natural citrus oils, and dark green or red anthroquinone dye.

Q. What is a thermocouple thermometer?

A. Thermometers with thermocouples measure, amplify, linearize and display the voltage signal generated by the thermocouple probe. They can read various temperature ranges depending on the type of probe used. Probes are specified by a letter designation such as J, K, T, or E, depending on the temperature range they can read. They are also available in different shapes for measuring surfaces, penetrating materials or taking air/gas measurements. Some are also available with data storage capabilities, alarms, converting temperature scales and average readings.

Q. What is an Infrared (IR) Thermometer and how does it work?

A. Infrared thermometers collect energy transmitted, reflected or emitted from an object. The hotter the object, the more infrared energy it emits. This energy is then focused on a detector that converts the energy to an electrical signal, which is amplified and displayed. Infrared thermometers are well suited for moving or hard-to-reach objects or for hazardous materials. These types of thermometers have difficulty accurately measuring temperatures through glass, reflective surfaces or plastic films, depending on the material type and thickness.

Q. What is the response time an IR thermometer?

A. The response time of IR thermometers is faster that most other types of thermometers--approximately 0.5 second.

Q. How far or from what distance can I measure to take a temperature measurement with an IR thermometer?

A. This depends on the optical capability of the IR thermometer. This is where the distance-to-spot ratio specification comes into play. Use the distance-to-spot ratio and the diameter of your target to determine the maximum distance you can be from the target. Most IR thermometers have a maximum measuring distance of approximately 100 feet (30 meters), depending on atmospheric conditions.

Q. What is the spectral range of an IR thermometer?

A. The infrared spectral range is 0.7 to 1000 µm, the range for wavelength in which infrared radiation is transmitted. For cost reasons, IR thermometers generally operate under 20 µm. Most IR thermometers have a spectral response of 8-20 µm. This range is used because it is minimally affected by carbon dioxide and water in the atmosphere. With longer, lower-energy wavelengths greater than 20 µm, the accuracy decreases with increased distances due to the effects of the atmosphere (humidity).

Q. What is emissivity and how does it affect temperature readings from an IR thermometer?

A. Emissivity is the ability of an object to emit or absorb energy. Perfect emitters have an emissivity of 1, emitting 100% of incident energy. An object with an emissivity of 0.8 will absorb 80% and reflect 20% of the incident energy. Emissivity may vary with temperature and spectral response (wavelength). Infrared thermometers will have difficulty taking accurate temperature measurements of shiny metal surfaces unless they can be adjusted for emissivity.

Q. How can the emissivity of an object be determined?

A. First, measure the surface temperature of the object to be measured with a surface-type thermocouple probe. Measure the same surface with an IR thermometer, adjusting emissivity on the thermometer until the temperature readings on both the thermocouple and IR meters agree.

For temperatures up to approximately 500°F (260°C), place a piece of regular masking tape on the object to be measured. Allow the tape to reach thermal equilibrium with the object. Using an IR thermometer with the emissivity set at 0.95, measure and note the temperature of the masking tape. Then, measure the surface temperature of the object. Adjust the emissivity until the temperature of the object is the same as that of the tape.

Q. What size area does an IR thermometer measure?

A. It measures the average temperature of the surface within the measuring diameter.

Q. So how do I calculate the “range” of the IR Thermometer?

A. The “range” is the distance from the object being measured in inches/optical resolution. This number (inches) is the diameter of the area the thermometer will measure. The thermometer will give the average temperature of the surface within that circle. Example: Let’s say the thermometer has an optical resolution of 8:1 and you want to measure the temperature of a liquid in a tank at a 20-foot distance. 20 feet X 12 inches per foot = 240 inches. 240 inches/8 = 30 inches; the thermometer will measure the average temperature of a circle 30 inches in diameter, centered on the beam of the thermometer.

To Index


Hexavalent Chromium Cr(VI) Exposure FAQs

Q. What is Hexavalent Chromium?

A. Hexavalent Chromium Cr(VI) is a toxic form of the element chromium. Cr(VI) compounds are man-made and widely used in many different industries such as the chemical industry in pigments (ingredients in catalysts), metal plating processes, and in general chemical synthesis. It can also be produced when welding on stainless steel or painted surfaces.


Q. What does OSHA have to say about Hexavalent Chromium?

A. On February 28, 2006, OSHA published the final standard for occupational exposure to Hexavalent Chromium. The new standard will protect workers against exposure to compounds containing Hexavalent Chromium Cr(VI) in the general industry, construction and shipyard sectors, while providing employers with adequate time to transition to the new requirements. OSHA estimates 558,000 workers are covered by the provisions in this new standard. To view the OSHA Final Standard, click here: http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/hexavalentchromium/standards.html

Q. What are the exposure limits?

A. The new OSHA standard lowers permissible exposure limit (PEL) for Hexavalent Chromium and for virtually all Cr(VI) compounds - from 52 micrograms per cubic meter (ug/m3), down to 5 (ug/m3) of air as an 8-hour, time-weighted average. There are exceptions for Cr(VI) found in Portland cement and in pesticide applications. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) should also be checked for any mention of the presence of Cr(VI).

Q. How can one measure for PEL?

A. OSHA provides several test methods that define acceptable procedures to determine PEL’s for Hexavalent Chromium:

OTM ID No. 215 – Analytical Method: http://www.osha.gov/dts/sltc/methods/inorganic/id215/id215.pdf

OTM ID No. 4001 – Wipe Sampling Method:
http://www.osha.gov/dts/sltc/methods/validated/t-w4001-fv-02-0104-m/t-w4001-fv-02-0104-m.html

OTM ID No. 103 – Inorganic Method: http://www.osha.gov/dts/sltc/methods/inorganic/id103/id103.html

Industries covered by this new rule must achieve the PEL through engineering and work practice controls to the extent that is technologically feasible.

Given the significant PEL reduction required by the new standard, OSHA has provided a transition for employers to implement the technologies and practices needed for compliance. The standard has an effective date of 90 days from its publication.

Within this period, affected employers have the opportunity to familiarize themselves with the standard. The official start-up date for all provisions, except engineering controls, is 180 days from the effective date, or one year for employers with fewer than 20 employees. This allowance gives employers sufficient time to complete initial exposure assessments, obtain appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) and comply with other provisions of the standard. Engineering controls must be implemented within four years from the effective date for all employers, allowing employers time to design, obtain and install the proper control equipment.

Additional provisions address the following concerns:

  • Performance of exposure determinations through air sampling
  • Provision of proper respiratory protection with NIOSH-approved particulate respirators rated at N95 or higher
  • Provision of necessary protective clothing and equipment, type depending on the potential for exposure and conditions of use, examples of which include but not limited to gloves, aprons, coveralls, foot coverings and goggles
  • Performance of medical surveillance and communication of hazards; http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/hexavalentchromium/evaluation.html

Q. What are the health effects?

A. OSHA has a detailed fact sheet covering the Health Effects of Hexavalent Chromium. The Fact Sheet also offers preventative measures to reduce the harmful physical effects of the compound and explains how employees can be exposed to it. To access the Fact Sheet, click here: http://www.osha.gov/OshDoc/data_General_Facts/hexavalent_chromium.pdf

For more information on OSHA Exposure Evaluation go to: http://www.osha.gov/SLTC/hexavalentchromium/evaluation.html

To index


Matting FAQs

Q. What is the difference between static-dissipative and electrically conductive anti-fatigue mats?

A. Static-dissipative and electrically conductive matting both conduct a charge when grounded.

The difference between the two is defined by the materials’ resistance, which affects the speed of the discharge. The lower the resistance, the quicker the discharge.

A conductive material has a surface resistivity of less than 1 x 105 ohms per square. Dissipative materials have a surface resistivity of 1 x 106 to 1 x 1012 ohms per square.

Q. What applications would a conductive mat be used versus a static dissipative mat?

A. Condu